Why is the marriage rate considerably lower than the divorce rate?
I would have to question whence you get the idea that the marriage rate is lower than the divorce rate. If you look at it logically, you will see that this is impossible. Before people can get divorced, they must first get married. So, assuming the highest possible rate of divorce (i.e. every marriage ends in divorce), then the divorce rate would equal the marriage rate. Since we know that not every marriage ends in divorce, the divorce rate must be at some value that is less than the rate of marriage. The only way to have a divorce rate that is higher than the marriage rate is for there to be more divorces than marriages. However, since marriage is a necessary precursor to divorce this would be an impossible situation. ************* “Answers101: circular reasoning” Ok, then you explain to me how you can have more divorces than marriages when people must get married before they can get divorced. How can you have more of condition A than you do of condition B if B is required for A? Oh,
The organization “Americans for Divorce Reform” estimates that close to 50 percent of marriages end in divorce. Add to that a growing number of middle aged people that have NEVER been married (now over 25% of the US population) and the result is that in 2006, for the first time in history, there are more single females between the ages 16 to 70 than there are married females (US Census Bureau). This trend is a major change in our society as it indicates that marriage could be a vanishing institution in the US. Personally, I prefer a roommate relationship so we don’t have to support two lawyers if we choose to go our separate ways.
