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Why is long-run per capita growth independent of the savings ratio in neoclassical growth theory?

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Why is long-run per capita growth independent of the savings ratio in neoclassical growth theory?

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In this model the production is split between consumer goods and capital durable goods. No allowance for savings ratio is made and investment is direct by the producer who splits his effort between these two forms of goods. Again this model is haywire!

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