Why every developed country has prostitution if the most people from there have good education?
Actually you are raising an interesting question. But to me, your line of logic is a little bit “biased”. Consider the following: suppose some 80% (a purely hypothetical number) of a developed country have “good education”, do you automatically consider that this percentage is also true for the prostitutes? Then if true, following your logic, they would prefer not to be as such and would choose alternative sources of income. But you see that this is not true. This is the first point I want to make. Secondly, just let me remind you of the famous so-called “red-light” district in Amsterdam. What percentage of the “workers” are actually Dutch you think? I doubt at most 10% maybe? Again, I don’t want to speculate on numbers, just to give you an idea. By the way, I do not claim that you will not see an educated prostitute, but your chances are too low I guess. Thirdly, as mentioned above, the demand-supply cause-consequence works: there will always be (my personal perception) a need for sex
