why do some translations read “wedding feast”?
I don’t know. I suppose it is an interpretation rather than a strict translation. My Greek New Testament, as well as the King James Version, translate it simply “wedding.” So when it says “return from the wedding,” I see it as the wedding processional rather than the wedding feast which occurs later. Does Luke 17:29 prove that the rapture and the day of the Lord occur on the same day? No, Luke 17 is not the rapture. Remember, in Luke 17 the ones who are taken end up as corpses for vultures to feed on. Furthermore, Luke 17:31 applies “that day” to a mid-tribulation event (compare Matthew 24:15 18); so if we take “day” in a strict technical sense, we can get tangled up here. All views today (pre-, post-, mid-) commonly believe that the rapture begins the day of the Lord. But the older pre-tribs separated the rapture and the day of the Lord by seven years. I think we were right the first time. If not the rapture, then what happens on the same day? Destruction. Read the passage again. That
