Important Notice: Our web hosting provider recently started charging us for additional visits, which was unexpected. In response, we're seeking donations. Depending on the situation, we may explore different monetization options for our Community and Expert Contributors. It's crucial to provide more returns for their expertise and offer more Expert Validated Answers or AI Validated Answers. Learn more about our hosting issue here.

Why do certain Bile translations change John 1 vs 18 to”only-begotten Son”?

0
Posted

Why do certain Bile translations change John 1 vs 18 to”only-begotten Son”?

0

Here is a commentary on the idea of “only begotten god” that follows the thought of “a god” of John 1:1 *** w84 9/1 pp. 27-28 “We Worship What We Know” *** “One Lord, Jesus Christ” –After having stated: “There is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him,” the apostle Paul added: “And there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we through him.” (1 Corinthians 8:6) Jehovah’s Witnesses subscribe to that further statement. Jehovah, the Father, is the Source; Jesus, God’s “only-begotten son,” the “firstborn of all creation,” is the means by which the Father accomplishes His will.—John 1:2, 3, 14; Colossians 1:15, 16. –Because the fourth-century dissident theologian Arius stated the Biblical truth that “the Son is not unbegotten,” and Jehovah’s Witnesses accept that truth, The New Encyclopædia Britannica states: “The Christology of Jehovah’s Witnesses, also, is a form of Arianism. –” First, it must be stated that Jehovah’s Witness

Related Questions

What is your question?

*Sadly, we had to bring back ads too. Hopefully more targeted.

Experts123