Why did Spain and Holy Roman Empire decete France in order to control Italy???
I don’t know the word “decete” and I don’t know the time period you’re referring to, although I suppose you mean the early 16th Century. The HRE had claimed northern Italy (named “Lombardy” for an early German tribe of “Lombards” ) since around the time of Charlemagne. In the early 16th Century, the King of France Francis I started throwing his military weight around and invaded northern Italy. Spain and the HRE (both of which were then headed by Charles V Habsburg) as well as the Pope opposed this both because the HRE had historically controlled northern Italy and because they did not want to see Francis I take over any more of Europe than he had previously done. The Habsburg forces under Charles V (who had become Emperor in spite of the efforts of Francis I to get himself elected) defeated and captured Francis I at the Battle of Pavia. In the future, when asking this sort of question, please be as specific as possible, as it will assist in getting better answers.
