Which is preferred between an unrecorded title of a house of a prior date and a recorded mortgage of the same house of later date?
Between an unrecorded title of a house of a prior date and a recorded mortgage of the same house of later date, the former is preferred for the reason that, if the original owner had parted with his ownership of the thing sold, then he no longer had the ownership and free disposal of that thing so as to be able to mortgage it.
Related Questions
- After the new deed is recorded and I get title insurance...should I then contact the mortgage company and tell them that the statements should now be coming to me?
- Does the Property Tax Division provide buyers with title information (deeds, mortgage, liens, etc.) prior to a tax sale?
- Is it a good idea to be "pre-qualified" for a mortgage prior to shopping for a house?
