When will “the sun be turned to darkness and the moon to blood”?
“Before the coming of the great and glorious day of the Lord” the same “day of the Lord” spoken by Paul. Are we in Christ’s church supposed to believe that two apostles of the Lord Jesus Christ, who specifically spoke of the “day of the Lord,” are referring to two entirely different concepts? Why couldn’t Peter and Paul be two witnesses given to us by God who are referring to the same concept, only providing different pieces of the same puzzle to help us understand more of the same picture? On the first day of the church, Peter spoke to the crowd and referenced Joel. Why? Why did Peter quote Joel? Why did Christ quote Isaiah in the synagogue of Nazareth? Because it was the fulfillment of Isaiah’s prophecy. Why did Paul quote Isaiah in the context of speaking in tongues? Because it was the fulfillment of Isaiah’s prophecy. Why did Christ quote Daniel in the context of the Antichrist? Because it would be the ultimate fulfillment of Daniel’s prophecy. Who established the precedent to help
