What happens when a king dies and his widow is pregnant?
It depends on the applicable law of succession. If, under that law, there was an heir apparent at the time of death, than that heir immediately succeeds. If there was only an heir presumptive, then in all likelihood a regency of some kind would be put in place until the birth of the child; a conceivable alternative being a “conditional proclamation” of the heir presumptive (see the Brit-FAQ 2.44). The situation is rarely, if ever, explicitly foreseen in succession laws. Specifically: • If the deceased king already has at least one son, then, under any existing succession law, the son would immediately succeed. • If he has no son but at least one daughter, and if absolute primogeniture is the rule, then the eldest one would immediately succeed. • In all other cases, the unborn child could displace existing heirs presumptive. There are several historical examples: • In 1316, Louis X of France died leaving a daughter and a pregnant widow. The daughter was not called to succeed, but the br
