Important Notice: Our web hosting provider recently started charging us for additional visits, which was unexpected. In response, we're seeking donations. Depending on the situation, we may explore different monetization options for our Community and Expert Contributors. It's crucial to provide more returns for their expertise and offer more Expert Validated Answers or AI Validated Answers. Learn more about our hosting issue here.

What happens if a player pays to westernize his region at the same time that another player pays for a revolt?

0
Posted

What happens if a player pays to westernize his region at the same time that another player pays for a revolt?

0

A4. We decided to view funds spent to westernize and incite revolt on equal footing. Each goes towards convincing the natives to do a particular thing. We figured that the natives would split in their decision, going in equal numbers to each source of funds. When a westernization and one or more revolts are applied to the same region, a battle still happens. However, the native force is reduced by ratio of the westernization force to the revolt force: 1/(1 west + # of revolts). Thus, if the owner westernizes and one player pays to revolt, then 1/2 of the natives would be convinced to westernize and 1/2 would be convinced to revolt. Thus the computer reduces the native revolt force by 1/2 (rounding up any fractional units to the nearest integer, regardless of the fractional value, which is different than the calculation used to round fractional PPs as described in Q39). If two players paid for revolt, then the native force is reduced by only 1/3rd. If three players paid for a revolt, th

What is your question?

*Sadly, we had to bring back ads too. Hopefully more targeted.

Experts123