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Moses commanded that an indecency be found in the wife as the reason to write a lawful divorce, but does that mean any or every kind of indecency is good enough reason?

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Moses commanded that an indecency be found in the wife as the reason to write a lawful divorce, but does that mean any or every kind of indecency is good enough reason?

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” Jesus gave a reply that specifically answered the Pharisees question of what kind of indecency it was that made a divorce “lawful” when He said, “Deuteronomy 24:1-4 only allows a divorce if one spouse is unfaithful, all divorces for any other reason are the sin of committing adultery against the spouse of your marriage covenant” (Matthew 19:9 paraphrased). The existence of the “Exception Clauses” themselves is owed to the fact that the Pharisees asked Jesus to interpret Deuteronomy 24:1-4 (“what Moses commanded”). Jesus interpreted that law as, “All divorces are unlawful and sinful, except those divorces that were issued because a spouse was unfaithful to the marriage covenant, such as we see described in Jeremiah 3:1-8.” Jeremiah, Chapter 3, is all about Gods use of the law of divorce and remarriage found in Deuteronomy 24:1-4 and the Exception Clauses found in Matthew 5 and 19. God divorced an unfaithful Israel with the goal of shaming her into giving up her indecent love affair wi

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