Is the field called the field of blood because the priest bought it with blood money (Matthew 27:8), or because of Judass bloody death (Acts 1:19)?
(misunderstood the wording) Once again, looking at the same two passages as the last two apparent contradictions Shabbir asks why the field where Judas was buried called the Field of Blood? Matthew 27:8 says that it is because it was bought with blood-money, while, according to Shabbir Acts 1:19 says that it was because of the bloody death of Judas. However both passages agree that it was due to it being bought by blood-money. Acts 1:18-19 starts by saying, “With the reward he got for his wickedness, Judas bought a field”. So it begins with the assumption that the field was bought by the blood-money, and then the author intending to cause revulsion for what had happened describes Judas bloody end on that piece of real estate. In other words the high priest bought the field for burial of criminals, unknown people. Because they used the “blood money” that Judas threw back into the temple, this is how the field was purchased. Dead men can’t buy land. This concludes part one of the suppose
