Is re-redistricting unconstitutional?
The Washington Post has an article by Edward Walsh, Redrawing Districts Raises Questions; No Precedent Seen for GOP efforts. (There’s also this related article on Texas redistricting.) The article considers the constitutionality of the practice that took place in Texas and Colorado to do a second redistricting in a single decade. Multiple redistrictings have been done in a single decade before, but for purposes of remedying a constitutional or Voting Rights violation. These redistrictings were done for partisan (in this case, Republican) advantage. Under what theory might re-redistricting be unconstitutional? According to the article, “[i]n a lawsuit filed in U.S. District Court in Tyler, Tex., [Democrats] note that the Constitution requires that House seats be reapportioned among the states after each 10-year Census. An ‘implicit assumption’ of that reapportionment mandate, the Democrats argue, is that the redrawing of district lines within states will take place on the same schedule.
Related Questions
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- Can the SJC declare the statute unconstitutional when the term "marriage" explicitly was written into the Constitution by the framers?
- Is the New Individual Chapter Eleven Unconstitutional?
