Is it true that all male survivors of childhood sexual abuse will become perpetrators?
I am still surprised when I hear a question like this. By now I assume that everyone knows that the correlation between known perpetrators and a past history of personal abuse does not translate into the logical assumption that all victims will become victimizers. Consider this simple analogy: all identified alcoholics have a history of alcohol use; however, not everyone who uses alcohol goes on to become an alcoholic. The same is true for sexual abuse survivors.
