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However, Since Arabic poetry and rhetoric WAS flourishing during Muhammads time, it follows that his miracle had to be one that was verbal in nature. What is so rationally objectionable about that?

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However, Since Arabic poetry and rhetoric WAS flourishing during Muhammads time, it follows that his miracle had to be one that was verbal in nature. What is so rationally objectionable about that?

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Again, there is no such thing as verbal miracles. Can you define a verbal miracle? Also, why Mohammed’s miracles ‘had’ to be verbal in nature, just because Arabic poetry and rethoric was flourishing during Mohammed’ s time? Please don’t talk about patterns, because there was no reasonable pattern as pointed out above. You make too many illogical assumptions. You said: No, my assertion stands because to be inimitable doesn’t necessitate duplication. No, the best imitation is duplication. So your assertion does not stand. You said: You have assumed that the Quranic challenge is merely to duplicate a Surah; it’s not. To get a clearer idea of what I am saying, consider the miracle of Jesus’ virgin birth. Today, it is possible to imitate that. I did not say that the Quranic challenge is is merely to duplicate a Surah. I said the Quranic challenge is meaningless and absurd. When you talked about ‘Imitation’ (that the Quran is inimitable), I said duplication is the best imitation. As for Jesu

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