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How does infallibility relate to biblical interpretation?

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How does infallibility relate to biblical interpretation?

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When it comes to interpretation, the Church of Rome maintained, and still maintains, that its own interpretations of the Bible are uniquely and unerringly perfect. Again, apologist Karl Keating relates why: One thing he [Christ] said he would do was found a Church, and from both the Bible … and other ancient works, we see that Christ established a Church with the rudiments of all we see in the Catholic Church today … sacraments, teaching authority, and, as a consequence of the last, infallibility. Christ’s Church, to do what he said it would do, had to have the note of infallibility. We thus have taken purely historical material and concluded that there exists a Church, which is the Catholic Church, divinely protected against teaching error. Now we are at the last part of the argument. That Church tells us the Bible is inspired, and we can take the Church’s word for it precisely because the Church is infallible. 3 The appearance of this as being circular reasoning does not evade Ke

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