How does durkheim feel about social inequality?
The last answer is WRONG: he was NOT part of the Davis/Moore school of thought! The Functional Theory of Stratification wasn’t even published until 1937: 20 years after Durkheim died. If they were influenced by Durkheim, they must have twisted the heck out of his writings because Davis/Moore pretty much single-handedly killed functional theory. Durkheim was not a “functionalist” per se, but he was definitely not a conflict theorist either. He didn’t talk much about inequality, but when he did, he mostly just acknowledged its existence. He did think that social control/authority was important, and I imagine he would see social inequality as part of that system. Either way, he’s definitely not recognized for his thoughts on social inequality – he’s most famous for his thoughts on modernity and religion. Edit: He acknowledged that inequality did exist. So no, he did not think everyone was equal. Edit2: I also just read that as a Jewish man in his era, he was politically sympathetic to Soc
