Does human law command the acts of all the virtues?
It seems that human law does not command the acts of all the virtues: Objection 1: The acts of the vices are opposed to the acts of the virtues. But as has been explained (a. 2), human law does not prohibit all the vices. Therefore, human law does not command the acts of all the virtues. Objection 2: The act of a virtue proceeds from that virtue. But virtue is the end of law, and so what proceeds from a virtue cannot fall under a precept of the law. Therefore, human law does not command the acts of all the virtues. Objection 3: As has been explained (q. 90, a. 2), law is ordered toward the common good. But certain acts of the virtues are ordered not toward the common good, but instead toward [the agents] private good. Therefore, the law does not command the acts of all the virtues. But contrary to this: In Ethics 5 the Philosopher says, The law commands the acts of the brave man and the acts of the temperate man and the acts of the mild‑mannered manand so on for the other virtues and v
