Does anyone have legitimate objections to Platos Meno (93c-96d)?
The argument which has been proceeding hypothetically, ever since Meno could not find a definition of virtue which would “stay still” is as follows: HYPOTHESIS: IF virtue is knowledge THEN virtue can be taught. Socrates examines the consequent part of the proposition together with Anytus, more than Meno, and points out that several virtuous Athenians, even though they taught their sons many forms of excellence which could be taught, such as horse back riding in the case of Themistocles’s son, did not teach their sons their own peculiar virtues. Those sorts of counter examples to the consequent of Socrates’s hypothesis, to wit:- Themistocles did not teach virtue to his son; Pericles did not teach virtue to his sons — especially NOT to his adopted son Alcibiades who was an exceptional strategist and warrior but an actual TRAITOR to the Athenian cause in the Peloponnesian War and one of the MAIN (and unstated) reasons why Socrates was brought up on charges of corrupting youth [for Alcib
