Because California is a so-called “no-fault” divorce state, does misconduct by either spouse ever come into play in the final judgment of the court?
Perhaps, in some circumstances; for example, under California law, when making a custody determination, the court must consider whether there is evidence of domestic violence. Also, a determination of whether one party will be awarded spousal support may hinge on the issue of a domestic violence conviction. California law also provides that in making a property award, the court may consider misappropriation of an asset by one party to the detriment of the other.
Related Questions
- Because California is a so-called "no-fault" divorce state, does misconduct by either spouse ever come into play in the final judgment of the court?
- Does the fact that Florida is a "no-fault" divorce state mean that marital misconduct is never at issue in divorce proceedings?
- How does misconduct by either spouse affect the final judgment of the court?
