Did she ordinarily have orgasms in-between acts of intercourse (i.e, without semen present in the vagina)?
RAH – As mentioned in Sec. 10.11, it’s optimal if the female orgasm follows or is simultaneous with the male orgasm, due to the climax’s drawing fluids into the uterus. By the same token, if you (female) have an orgasm outside this time frame, as in oral sex preceding intercourse for example, it seems possible that the same activity can draw normally-acidic vaginal fluids into the uterus. Since sperm require an alkaline environment to survive, this could pose a potential problem. The evidence is far from conclusive on this point, but once again, for those who want to gain every “conceivable” advantage :-), it wouldn’t be a bad idea to save the fireworks for the main event. – RAH I do remember reading somewhere that a woman’s orgasm can change acidity and create problems, too. Don’t you wish this could be simpler?!?! I sure do!
